I know that people get married to their ideas of Phoenician language being Semitic and all languages being Proto Indo European, or whatever it is. But have we missed the Tyrsenian languages and their role? Are the Phoenician and Tyrsenian language groups related and is that relation the source of Semitic and Indo European language groups? I know the idea is not popular with people invested in some great Indo European culture or Semitic hegemony over writing, but doesn’t the idea of Tyrsenian and Phoenician languages sharing a source, possibly in a Minoan society, fit more with what early stories depict? Is it too far of a stretch to think Semitic and Iranian cultures borrowed from the island traders and learned to write from them? Don’t the Phoenicians, the Carthaginians, the Romans, and the alleged Trojan-descended peoples all maintain a close relationship throughout our post-Bronze Age history? Why do we separate their similar languages and cultures, saying this one is Indo European, this one is Semitic, this one never existed? I understand we borrow from Egyptian and Sumerian sources, but I thought those writing systems had gone extinct. Is it a Minoan then Tyrsenian then Phoenician progression that both IE and Semitic is based off of? Or are there some undiscovered Proto-answers out there?
The answer now depends on you, to go out and find the evidence.
Of course it’s possible - but only because millions of other ideas are possible too.
It’s like trying to solve a murder: it’s still possible that someone else did it, and evidence is the only good way of solving it.